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NBR: Random question for practicing Jews and Christians

bluestreetbluestreet
in Austin Babies
Why aren't Jews and Christians allowed to practice polygamy? I'm a lapsed Catholic and have a decent lay person's knowledge of Christianity, but I have no idea why it's not allowed. I know fundamentalist polygamists and fundamentalist LDS use the Old Testament patriarchs as a justification for polygamy, so at what point was that practice gotten rid of among Jews and (therefore?) Christians, and on what grounds? Thanks to any of you who can satisfy my curiosity!
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Re: NBR: Random question for practicing Jews and Christians

  • abh1977abh1977
    Off the top of my head, I believe that in Matthew (I think chapter 19 but don't quote me on that) the Bible states that in marriage, "two shall become one."  Definitely two, not more than two.  As far as I remember from all of my classes (more than 10 years ago!!!) this is the most frequently cited passage.
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  • MrsAJLMrsAJL member

    Well the Torah (we don't call it the Old Testament) doesn't forbid polygamy. In fact our patriarchs all had many wives and they yield lots of important players in the whole expansion of the Hebrews, so to speak.

    For Jews, laws come both from the bible and from rabbinical commentary. Polygamy was forbidden in Judaism about 1000 years ago by Rabbenu Gershom. 

    Here's his reasoning: 

    • It was instituted to prevent people from taking advantage of their wives.

    • It was intended to avoid potential infighting between rival-wives.

    • Rabbi Gershom was concerned lest the husband be unable to provide properly for all his wives (especially during the difficult times of Exile).

    • The ban is intended to avoid the inherent rivalry and hatred between rival wivesThere is a concern that a man may marry two wives in different locations, which may lead to forbidden relationships between offspring.

    • The ban is intended to avoid the inherent rivalry and hatred between rival wives, which may also lead to the transgression of a number of biblical violations.

    • It has been suggested that it was adopted from Christian practice and laws, to avoid Christian attacks against Jews who act otherwise.7 This argument, however, has been assailed by many other Halachic authorities.
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  • thethompsthethomps member

    imageabh1977:
    Off the top of my head, I believe that in Matthew (I think chapter 19 but don't quote me on that) the Bible states that in marriage, "two shall become one."  Definitely two, not more than two.  As far as I remember from all of my classes (more than 10 years ago!!!) this is the most frequently cited passage.

    It's actually in Mark.  (Matthew 19 is about divorce, so related topic.)  However, it's a re-quote of Genesis about the man leaving his father and mother and cleaving to his wife and the two becoming one flesh.  I think Ephesians is also another passage that is used, where it talks about the roles of a husband and wife in marriage - it doesn't mention wives, just a wife.  

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  • bluestreetbluestreet
    Thanks, y'all! I was just reading my new favorite web site, Feminist Mormon Housewives (don't ask), and one of the topics was how mainstream LDS women have to deal with the prospect of potentially sharing their husband in the hereafter. So I wondered why polygamy had become outlawed in Judaism and Christianity, given how common it was with the major dudes like Abraham and the fact that, wrt Christianity, I don't remember Jesus forbidding it. Fun research after the kids go to sleep!
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  • thethompsthethomps member
    Dude.  I am checking out that blog right now!
    No siggy pic until TB gets rid of Twitter and FB links Daisypath Happy Birthday tickers
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  • abh1977abh1977
    imagethethomps:

    imageabh1977:
    Off the top of my head, I believe that in Matthew (I think chapter 19 but don't quote me on that) the Bible states that in marriage, "two shall become one."  Definitely two, not more than two.  As far as I remember from all of my classes (more than 10 years ago!!!) this is the most frequently cited passage.

    It's actually in Mark.  (Matthew 19 is about divorce, so related topic.)  However, it's a re-quote of Genesis about the man leaving his father and mother and cleaving to his wife and the two becoming one flesh.  I think Ephesians is also another passage that is used, where it talks about the roles of a husband and wife in marriage - it doesn't mention wives, just a wife.  

    Not trying to be anal, but the minister (in a previous life) and religion major in me had to check this.  Both Mark 10:7-9 and Matthew 19:4-6 are retellings of the same conversation, and so technically are both about the topic of divorce.  In fact, the NIV study Bible I'm looking at translates them almost word-for-word identically.  Both passages refer back to Genesis, but I referenced the New Testament and Jesus' quote since bluestreet specifically mentioned Christianity and where within that religion the idea came from.   But yes, this is about as specifc as the New Testament gets on the topic - the concept is more from inference rather than anything specifically spelled out. 

    BabyFruit Ticker
    "There is a fine line between a princess and a witch...thinking you're one does NOT give you the right to act like the other." my grandmother
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  • Xtina712Xtina712 member
    I cannot recall the exact origin but I thought that the platonist/neo-platonist movement had a strong influence in the early Church and their ideas on sexuality and the soul.  It's been a while since I've studied any of this though.
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  • bluestreetbluestreet
    imageXtina712:
    I cannot recall the exact origin but I thought that the platonist/neo-platonist movement had a strong influence in the early Church and their ideas on sexuality and the soul.  It's been a while since I've studied any of this though.
    Off to research that! Thanks!
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