If a company pays 100% of the health insurance for:
the employee, employee+spouse, employee+child, and employee + family and offers that coverage universally, can they exclude certain individuals from receiving the benefits?
ex. Bob chooses employee+family coverage at $0 cost. Bob's wife is a stay at home mom.
Sally chooses employee+family coverage at $0 cost. However, Sally's husband could get insurance through his employer, although said employer doesn't pay 100% of the premium like Sally's company. Sally is told that the company will not pay for medical benefits for her husband b/c he is eligible for insurance elsewhere.
Anyone deal with this? Seems like discrimination to me. Basically in a nut shell, is that all costs will be covered except those spouses who are eligible for insurance somewhere else. Can they exclude individuals like this? Is it true that under the new healthcare reform act, if employers offer coverage to a certain class, don't they have to offer it to all employees in the class equally?