TTC after 35

DH is a champ (IUI #5 and possible TMI)

My poor DH had a bit of a hard time before my IUI this morning (or rather, the opposite....).  We had agreed that this time I wouldn't go in the collection room with him because it's so stressful for both of us, unless it was too difficult without me.  So I dropped him off and went shopping -- only to get a call from him a little while later to tell me he was indeed having trouble.  So I went back to help out, to the tune of: 50.50 million motile sperm post-processing, with 93% motility (see my question about this below).  !!!!! This is I think the best it's ever been.  A few hours later, DH was willing and able to BD, all before getting on a plane to fly quite a ways back to where he currently lives, getting back late at night before an 8 am meeting he has at work tomorrow (and he had to skip work today). He is my hero.

Here is my question.  I have YET to get a straight answer from the RE's office about percentages.  Here's what it says on the piece of paper I am looking at (today's "report card" on DH's sample):

Volume: 2.1 ml

Concentration: 84.5 million/ml

Motility: 88%

Total Motile Sperm Count: 156.16 million

Motility post-processing: 93%

Total motile sperm count,, post processing: 50.5 million

So, my question:  what does the 93% "motility post-processing" mean? Does it mean 1) that after they processed it, there was some amount of sperm, and 93% of it was motile (7% wasn't), and that 93% = 50.50 million?  OR does it mean 2) that of the 50.50 million, only 93% are motile?  I think the answer has got to be #1.  But when I asked the RE today (who I think maybe wasn't listening to me--the guy I don't like as much as my own RE) what it meant, he said it was 93% of the 50.50 million. 

Any way you cut it, though, DH did good today.  And now, the 2ww.

me - 41 (dx: DOR); DH - 53 (no problems); 7/18/09 - married!; 8/4/09 - BFP on first (real)try; 9/14/09 - missed m/c; 9/15/09 - d&c; 11/09 - 3/10 - 4 natural cycles = BFN; 4/10 - dx hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease; 6/10 - thyroidectomy; 7/10 - 12/10 - 1 natural and 5 medicated IUI cycles = BFN; 1/11 - new RE; dx low ovarian reserve (AMH .42; 1/26/11 -- BFP (ectopic) from IUI #6; methotrexate 2/10/11; 6/2/11 - IVF #1 = BFN; 9/12/11 - prescreening for DE; 9/15/11 - IUI #7 (unmedicated)= BFN; 11/8 - begin DE cycle (shared risk program); 12/5 - ER (5 eggs/4 mature/3 fertilized/2 left by day 5) 12/10 - ET of one 1BB blast (expanded, "fair" quality), none to freeze; 12/22 - totally shocked by +hpt; beta #1 = 413; #2 = 3952 2/14 - CVS reveals a healthy baby girl! EDD: 8/27/12 DD born 8/31/12, 10 lbs 10 oz and perfect in every way. 

Re: DH is a champ (IUI #5 and possible TMI)

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  • Hmm, the more I think about it, the more I think it has to be #1 actually and that the RE yesterday misspoke.  Because otherwise it would make no sense for them to tell you what the "total motile sperm post-processing is," a phrase that suggests there is also some "not motile sperm post-processing."  I'm no RE, but I think they take the sperm and process it (which greatly reduces it of course), then they look at it again.  At that point, there is still some non-motile sperm in the sample, but not a whole heck of a lot -- in my case yesterday, the 7%.  The rest -- the 93% -- are moving around, and they number 50.50 million in all.  I say this because it's the only way my clinic can have been happy a few cycles ago with a frozen sperm sample of 12 million motile sperm and 32% motility post-processing.  Because 32% of 12 million would have been only 3.84 million motile, and they are wary of doing an IUI with less than 5 million.  Mysterious math problem solved!

     

    BostonGayGal, I love your wedding pics!!

    me - 41 (dx: DOR); DH - 53 (no problems); 7/18/09 - married!; 8/4/09 - BFP on first (real)try; 9/14/09 - missed m/c; 9/15/09 - d&c; 11/09 - 3/10 - 4 natural cycles = BFN; 4/10 - dx hyperthyroidism caused by Graves' disease; 6/10 - thyroidectomy; 7/10 - 12/10 - 1 natural and 5 medicated IUI cycles = BFN; 1/11 - new RE; dx low ovarian reserve (AMH .42; 1/26/11 -- BFP (ectopic) from IUI #6; methotrexate 2/10/11; 6/2/11 - IVF #1 = BFN; 9/12/11 - prescreening for DE; 9/15/11 - IUI #7 (unmedicated)= BFN; 11/8 - begin DE cycle (shared risk program); 12/5 - ER (5 eggs/4 mature/3 fertilized/2 left by day 5) 12/10 - ET of one 1BB blast (expanded, "fair" quality), none to freeze; 12/22 - totally shocked by +hpt; beta #1 = 413; #2 = 3952 2/14 - CVS reveals a healthy baby girl! EDD: 8/27/12 DD born 8/31/12, 10 lbs 10 oz and perfect in every way. 
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