My maiden name and my original last name were easy.
Rhymes with "Borthrup" and rhymes with "Nroden".
The Borthrup's dog is a pain in the a**.I get it.
My married name? Let's just say it ends in an "s". Let's also say that it is the same as a movie serial killer's last name. Lets pretend it is "James".
Is it
The James's dog is a pain in the a** OR the James' dog is a pain in the a**?
Re: Punctuation experts, come in. SUPER embarrassing confession/question.
This one:
the James' dog is a pain in the a**?
I think.
I thought it is "James's" b/c usually when you put s' (instead of s's) its plural possessive. ::shrugs:: I always hated english, but I've picked up on things over the years.
Thank you, that is what I thought. I have been married for almost 3 years now and was too embarrassed to ask DH.
I am usually very good at this stuff but the names-ending-in-s thing always messes me up!
Yep- it would be plural possessive. The dog belongs to the James family
Mama Jan's Kitchen... a food blog
I was going to say that either would be correct. When a word ends in an S, you can add either just an apostrophe, or an apostrophe S. I believe that holds true even if the word ends in an S because it is plural.
But idk, where are Strunk and White when you need them?
James' - because its more than one of you.
like you would address an envelope
The James'
but the james family is ONE entity.
You know I thought this after responding, but then I just left it.
I actually re-read the OP to see if she meant James as plural already. Thanks for the clarification.
In American English, singular nouns ending in S indicate possession by means of a final apostrophe. e.g. James' scarf or Dickens' novels
Right- LOL! I'm agreeing with you! I'm trying to explain to her why it would be James' and not James's. Hahaha
haha oh okay.
fifth grade teacher here and our English book teaches James's
the "new" rule is that ALL singular possessive nouns get an 's no matter what. So it would be class's teacher or James's dog etc.
my two cents.
This is correct. Apparently, it used to be that only "Jesus" and "Moses" were written as Jesus' and Moses' in the possessive.
Common and proper usage now allow for all proper names ending in -s can be written as either James' or James's....
Both ways are acceptable now, since the English grammar rules are being changed. You can write "the James' dog" or "the James's dog;" both are acceptable. Though, the 's is more "correct." Whatever you choose, remember to be consistent throughout your writing.
https://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/possessives.htm
LOL I was trying to remember what those two said.
Yes, either is acceptable. And I, also, can't find my Strunk and White.
But this is a pretty trustworthy source:
https://owl.english.purdue.edu/owl/resource/621/01/Wouldn't "Jameses' " be pronounced "Jameseses"?
I am so confused.
This is how we are going to end this debate? I want answers!
From my understanding it would not be the Jameses'. You would say the Jameses are going on vacation with us (as in all of the people of the James family are included). You would say the James's dog (because in this case the James family is acting as one subject).
LOLOL- I didn't read that part of the OP. I actually stopped at "Borthup" and "Nrorden" or whatever, saw "James" and ASSumed it was a FN or singular LN.
LOL...
To make it singular, you could say "the James family's dog." But using just the family name would be the Jameses. The collective cast of a play are still actors, not a collective actor.
yup. I agree with this!
Ok, I get it
And your example makes more sense than anything I have been told before.
PPC - I searched and searched for something to refer you to since I couldn't find any of my grammar books from college. Here's a link that might help you understand what to use when
https://www.grammarbook.com/punctuation/apostro.asp