I think it;s 20% regardless. Which is annoying, oh well. There are just SO many factors that can dictate whether you will get pregnant in any given cycle.
My OB/GYN friend said that unless it's a medicated cycle no matter what you do it's 20%. Lame I know.
TTC #1 since September 2008
All tests normal
IUI #1, 1/31 50mg Clomid BFN!
IUI #2, 2/27 50mg Clomid, Ovidrel trigger BFN!
Laporoscopy March 30th- diagnosed with mild very endometriosis
IUI #3, 10/10, 2.5mg Femara BFN!
Hip Surgery 12/10 and forced TTC break
Diagnosed with gluten and dairy intolerance 12/10
June: TTC with TI and 2.5 mg Femara
IUI #4 & 5 Summer/Fall 2011 with Femara. BFN
11/11 Diagnosed Compound Heterozygous MTHFR- 7.5 mg Deplin
IVF #1 take 1- cancelled due to cyst
IVF #1 take 2- ER Aug 29, 35 retrieved ET Sept 3- 1 beautiful embryo transfered. 11 frozen embryos (AKA snow babies)
BFP Sept 11, 2012
Suffering from moderate OHSS
There was a debate about this maybe last week. Someone posted a article that said if you were charting and all of that fun stuff your chances were increased. I do not know how true it is but you might be able to find it if you look back.
Yea, that article the other week didn't convince me, either. I've always heard the 20%. It sucks to think that someone not trying has the same chance you do with well timed sex.
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
I think that the idea is any time you have sex during your fertile period, you have a 20% chance of conceiving. If you chart and time well, you can cut down on the number of cycles it will take you (all things being equal), but not actually increase your chances on any one cycle. Does that make sense?
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I think that the idea is any time you have sex during your fertile period, you have a 20% chance of conceiving. If you chart and time well, you can cut down on the number of cycles it will take you (all things being equal), but not actually increase your chances on any one cycle. Does that make sense?
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
Your chance of conceiving each cycle is still 20% because each cycle is an independent event. One cycle has no effect on another as long as you are healthy.
I think that the idea is any time you have sex during your fertile period, you have a 20% chance of conceiving. If you chart and time well, you can cut down on the number of cycles it will take you (all things being equal), but not actually increase your chances on any one cycle. Does that make sense?
Yeah, that makes perfect sense.
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It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
My doc said 90% of couples will concieve within a year.
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It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
Your chance of conceiving each cycle is still 20% because each cycle is an independent event. One cycle has no effect on another as long as you are healthy.
That makes sense. It just seems like a 20% chance is so low and I don't see how it ever happens
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
Your chance of conceiving each cycle is still 20% because each cycle is an independent event. One cycle has no effect on another as long as you are healthy.
That makes sense. It just seems like a 20% chance is so low and I don't see how it ever happens
Well, it happens 1 out of every 5 times.
And yes, it does seem very low. but it does happen.
Department of Obstetrics and Gynecology, Creighton University School of Medicine, Omaha, Nebraska.
Fifty
consecutive clients achieved pregnancy using a standardization
modification of the Billings ovulation method (the Creighton Model
Natural Family Planning System). Of 50 clients followed, 38 (76%)
achieved pregnancy in the first cycle of fertility-focused intercourse,
45 of 50 (90%) achieved pregnancy by the third cycle and 49 of 50
achieved pregnancy by the sixth cycle (98%).
PIP: The
effectiveness of the standardized modification of the Billings
ovulation method of natural family planning in fertility focused
intercourse was evaluated in a study over 12 months of 50 clients aged
22-38 years. 27 had prior pregnancy/s. All clients had normal
fertility. The results indicated a higher probability of conception
when the couple was aware of their peak fertile time than previously
expected. No clients became pregnant when intercourse was confined to
the infertile period. Within 1 cycle, 76.0% became pregnant. By the 3rd
cycle, 90.0% became pregnant. By the 6th cycle, 98% (49 out of 50)
achieved pregnancy. 71.4% of those with a prior pregnancy conceived
after the 1st cycle. 80.9% of nulligravida women achieved pregnancy
after 1 cycle, 89.3% of multiparous women became pregnant after the 4th
cycle, and 100% of the nulligravida women became pregnant after the 4th
cycle. The method entailed learning about the presence or absence of
cervical mucus discharge around the time of ovulation. The beginning of
the mucus cycle began with a sticky (a quarter of an inch), cloudy or
tacky discharge until the last day when the mucus became clear and
stretchy or lubricative. The last mucus was considered the peak day.
Clients recorded all acts of intercourse and were assessed at follow-up
visits every 2 weeks in the 1st 2 months, and then at 3, 6, 9, and 12
months. The fertile period was defined as the 1st day of mucus
discharge through 3 full days past the peak day. Ovulation is
considered possible +or- 2 days of the peak day for 95.4% of cycles.
Studies of random acts of intercourse show less efficient conception
rates. A study by Barrett and Marshall found, by using the Vollman
basal body temperature method, that daily intercourse around the period
of alleged fertility increased the possibility of conception from 24%
to 31% for every 3-4 days to 68% for daily. The WHO fertility figure
for the ovulation method in a multicentered trial is 66.7%.
Here's another article that talks about varying rates of conception with timed intercourse. Keep in mind that the 68% is for daily intercourse around ovulation, and this article only discusses rates on various single days leading up to and beyond O day. When you combine the rates for each of those days (and, no, you can't simply add them), you get something closer to the WHO rate of 66 or 67%.
Basically, the point is that the rate is 20% OVERALL. That overall includes people like the GP board who are actively trying and who are charting to find out when they O and having intercourse around the time, as well as random people who have no idea when they O and are just having sex whenever. When you actually KNOW when you O, and plan your intercourse accordingly, your chances of conception increase. If they didn't, why would any of us be bothering with it, kwim?
ETA: The article didn't seem to be working, so here's the results section:
Probability
of Conception around the Time of Ovulation
The
couples in this study had intercourse an average of once every three days, a
frequency that makes it difficult in most pregnancies to attribute conception
to intercourse on one particular day. As a preliminary exploration, we selected
all 192 cycles in which conception occurred and examined the patterns of
intercourse around ovulation to identify the range of fertile days. In every
cycle in which conception occurred, there was intercourse at least once during
the six consecutive days that ended with the day of ovulation. There was no shorter
span of days that included intercourse in every cycle. Conversely, there were
31 cycles (of a total of 625) in which there was no intercourse during this six
day interval, and none resulted in conception.
As
a preliminary estimate of the chance of conception on individual days, we
identified all the cycles in which intercourse occurred on only a single day
during the six day period. On the basis of these 129 cycles (21 percent of the
total), the proportion with a detected pregnancy ranged from 0.08 on the first
day of the six-day period to 0.36 on the sixth day (the day of ovulation) (Fig.
2).
For
all 625 cycles, we applied our statistical model to estimate the chance of
conception on each of the six days in the fertile period. These probabilities
ranged from 0.10 to 0.33 - figures similar to the proportions for the
single-day cycles (Fig. 2). Standard errors for the estimated probabilities are
provided in Table 1. The proportion of ovulatory cycles potentially able to
produce a pregnancy (cycle viability) was estimated to be 0.37 (95 percent
confidence interval, 0.31 to 0.48). We added one day to the six-day period in
each direction and repeated the analysis. The estimated probability of
conception was zero on both marginal days. However, we cannot exclude a
probability of conception of up to 12 percent on either the seventh day before ovulation
or the day after ovulation (95 percent confidence interval, 0 to 0.12).
If
the cycle is viable (i.e., if conception is possible), the model assumes that
each day of intercourse in the six-day
period contributes independently to the probability of pregnancy. Thus, daily
intercourse would produce the highest probability of conception (0.37). The estimated
rate of conception falls to 0.33 with intercourse that averages every other day
(assuming no special timing with regard to ovulation). At lower frequencies of
intercourse, the rate of conception drops more rapidly; untimed intercourse
averaging once per week would produce a 0.15 chance of conception per cycle. Considering
live births only (which accounted for two thirds of the conceptions), the
approximate probability would be 0.25 with daily intercourse, 0.22 with
intercourse every other day, and 0.10 with weekly intercourse. The assumption
that each day on which intercourse occurs makes an independent contribution to
conception is open to question. Frequent intercourse might decrease the potency
of semen - for example, by depleting the number
or quality of sperm.
As
a rough test of this hypothesis, we sorted cycles according to the number of days
on which intercourse occurred during the six-day period. If frequent
intercourse decreases the fertilizing capacity of sperm, then the observed
number of pregnancies initiated in cycles with more frequent intercourse should
be less than that predicted by the combined day-specific probabilities.
Similarly, cycles with intercourse on only one day should produce more
pregnancies than predicted. Table 2 shows the predicted and observed numbers of
pregnancies for each frequency of intercourse (from none to daily) during the
six-day period. The model fits well across the range of values for the frequency
of intercourse, with no overall trend toward lower fertility with a higher
frequency of intercourse. (emphasis mine).
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
I confuse myself with this sort of thinking, too. If you have a 20% chance each month, or 1 in 5, then shouldn't most people get pregnant within five cycles? Obviously I realize this is not your typical math problem because there are so many factors and as someone said, each month is an individual event...but still...it's somewhat perplexing!
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
The math goes like this. If you have an 80% chance of not getting pregnant after one cycle, then you have:
.8^2 = 64% chance of not getting pregnant after two cycles (36% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^3 = 51% chance of not getting pregnant after three cycles (49% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^4 = 41% chance of not getting pregnant after four cycles (59% chance of getting pregnant) . . .
. . . and so on. Thus (and assuming that the 20% figure stays constant for an entire year), you would have only a .8^12 = 7% chance of not getting pregnant after 12 cycles (93% chance of getting pregnant). Hope this helps!
.....still apply if you are charting and have good timing? You would think that the percentage would be higher. Is it 20% regardless?
I would imagine that the percentage is higher than 20% for those who have good timing and lower than 20% for those who don't, such that the percentage for the population as a whole averages out to 20%. Else what would be the point of charting?
.....still apply if you are charting and have good timing? You would think that the percentage would be higher. Is it 20% regardless?
I would imagine that the percentage is higher than 20% for those who have good timing and lower than 20% for those who don't, such that the percentage for the population as a whole averages out to 20%. Else what would be the point of charting?
It's 20% and it's depressing. My brain isn't working very well today, but if someone did the math, what is the percentage chance of getting pregnant over a 12 cycle period of time? 20% x 12 is 2.4...but does that mean you have a greater chance during 2.4 random cycles out of 12 of getting KU? I am confusing myself now... MEH!
The math goes like this. If you have an 80% chance of not getting pregnant after one cycle, then you have:
.8^2 = 64% chance of not getting pregnant after two cycles (36% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^3 = 51% chance of not getting pregnant after three cycles (49% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^4 = 41% chance of not getting pregnant after four cycles (59% chance of getting pregnant) . . .
. . . and so on. Thus (and assuming that the 20% figure stays constant for an entire year), you would have only a .8^12 = 7% chance of not getting pregnant after 12 cycles (93% chance of getting pregnant). Hope this helps!
Wow, smarty pants! That's actually really, really helpful and I'm jealous of your math skills. Thanks for explaining! Makes sense.
Re: Does the 20% chance of conceiving...
I think it is 20% regardless, there are a lot of ducks that need to line up for things to become magical.
GL!
My OB/GYN friend said that unless it's a medicated cycle no matter what you do it's 20%. Lame I know.
TTC #1 since September 2008
All tests normal
IUI #1, 1/31 50mg Clomid BFN!
IUI #2, 2/27 50mg Clomid, Ovidrel trigger BFN!
Laporoscopy March 30th- diagnosed with mild very endometriosis
IUI #3, 10/10, 2.5mg Femara BFN!
Hip Surgery 12/10 and forced TTC break
Diagnosed with gluten and dairy intolerance 12/10
June: TTC with TI and 2.5 mg Femara
IUI #4 & 5 Summer/Fall 2011 with Femara. BFN
11/11 Diagnosed Compound Heterozygous MTHFR- 7.5 mg Deplin
IVF #1 take 1- cancelled due to cyst
IVF #1 take 2- ER Aug 29, 35 retrieved ET Sept 3- 1 beautiful embryo transfered. 11 frozen embryos (AKA snow babies)
BFP Sept 11, 2012
Suffering from moderate OHSS
I agree. Someone did link an article the other week that said it was greater than 20% but it wasn't nearly enough to convince me.
This actually makes me feel better. My timing has been perfect thus far, and no BFP. If the % were higher, I might worry more.
Yea, that article the other week didn't convince me, either. I've always heard the 20%. It sucks to think that someone not trying has the same chance you do with well timed sex.
I think that the idea is any time you have sex during your fertile period, you have a 20% chance of conceiving. If you chart and time well, you can cut down on the number of cycles it will take you (all things being equal), but not actually increase your chances on any one cycle. Does that make sense?
Yes.
Your chance of conceiving each cycle is still 20% because each cycle is an independent event. One cycle has no effect on another as long as you are healthy.
Yeah, that makes perfect sense.
My doc said 90% of couples will concieve within a year.
That makes sense. It just seems like a 20% chance is so low and I don't see how it ever happens
Good point!
Well, it happens 1 out of every 5 times.
And yes, it does seem very low. but it does happen.
Not bogus.
It's not 100% because, for example, not all of the eggs we release are viable.
Here's the abstract of that article again, and I'll try and find some more reader-friendly articles to post:
Here's another article that talks about varying rates of conception with timed intercourse. Keep in mind that the 68% is for daily intercourse around ovulation, and this article only discusses rates on various single days leading up to and beyond O day. When you combine the rates for each of those days (and, no, you can't simply add them), you get something closer to the WHO rate of 66 or 67%.
Basically, the point is that the rate is 20% OVERALL. That overall includes people like the GP board who are actively trying and who are charting to find out when they O and having intercourse around the time, as well as random people who have no idea when they O and are just having sex whenever. When you actually KNOW when you O, and plan your intercourse accordingly, your chances of conception increase. If they didn't, why would any of us be bothering with it, kwim?
ETA: The article didn't seem to be working, so here's the results section:
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I confuse myself with this sort of thinking, too. If you have a 20% chance each month, or 1 in 5, then shouldn't most people get pregnant within five cycles? Obviously I realize this is not your typical math problem because there are so many factors and as someone said, each month is an individual event...but still...it's somewhat perplexing!
The math goes like this. If you have an 80% chance of not getting pregnant after one cycle, then you have:
.8^2 = 64% chance of not getting pregnant after two cycles (36% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^3 = 51% chance of not getting pregnant after three cycles (49% chance of getting pregnant)
.8^4 = 41% chance of not getting pregnant after four cycles (59% chance of getting pregnant) . . .
. . . and so on. Thus (and assuming that the 20% figure stays constant for an entire year), you would have only a .8^12 = 7% chance of not getting pregnant after 12 cycles (93% chance of getting pregnant). Hope this helps!
I would imagine that the percentage is higher than 20% for those who have good timing and lower than 20% for those who don't, such that the percentage for the population as a whole averages out to 20%. Else what would be the point of charting?
Wow, smarty pants! That's actually really, really helpful and I'm jealous of your math skills. Thanks for explaining! Makes sense.