The nurse at the walk-in clinic suggested that I could have had a blighted ovum. The nurse practitioner I saw did not confirm or deny that suspician.
AF was due 3/7
Started to bleed 3/21
3/22 my horomone level was a 5 (with previous m/c it took 4-5 weeks to get that low).
3/24 my horomone level was a 2 - no longer PG.
Does this seem normal?
It is all so odd to me. I was told since I got PG w/ my m/c #1 6 weeks after I weened DD1 and this time 2 weeks after I weened DD2 that it appears that my progesterone levels are not stable/high enough to maintain pregnancy.