First off, hi there!! So I had a patient (I am a home health physical therapist) say something to me today that I have never heard before. She said she used to work for the FDA and that the reason generic drugs are cheaper than brand names drugs is because they are only required by law to have 75% of the active ingredient that brand name ones do. Is that true? I can't imagine that being possible? Made me start to worry that if it is true maybe I need to start requesting brand names only, especially with antibiotics.
Re: bubbly...pharm q?
Hi!
She's wrong. To be marketed as a generic, the active ingredients have to be chemical equivalents, or the same thing. The inert/filler ingredients can be different, but anything having to do with the actual therapeutic effects must be identical. In a lot of cases, the same manufacturers make both brand drugs and generics, they're just "owned" by different companies.
There are a few cases where there are documented differences, but those are few and far between.
Rest assured. When you get a generic, you're getting what you need.
You take my ovaries, I take your yarns.